Apr. 24th, 2013
Something I've heard over and over again has me confused. Or, rather, has me thinking a lot of other people are confused.
I've heard a great deal of debate about the timing of "reading [the Boston bombing suspect] his Miranda rights".
I understand that the timing of when a person is warned/reminded of his rights has considerable significance for the admissibility or inadmissibility of any statement that person may make as evidence in court.
But no one is under the illusion that statement of those rights *actuates* them, are they? If a suspect is not cautioned as to those rights, the right STILL EXIST. THe Fifth and Sixth Amendments don't operate only after police remind you about them.